IIRC the settlement agreement used the phrase 'established methodology' for determining FMV. And there was plenty of speculation what this meant both in motions and rampant speculation here and elsewhere on the interwebs. It’s Boortz! It’s Vortrz! (yes, I saw that in a few places). In hindsight I think it’s obvious the courts didn’t want to wade into this issue, and I’m fairly certain 'established methodology' now means whatever the arbitral body says it is, provided that it is reasonable and readily defensible. To simplify, the FMV is determined by whatever procedure the RSDC says it is, and if they are prepared to “show their math”, then good luck to anyone who tries to challenge them on this. It’s now probably a dead end for any party to challenge the RSDC’s fair market valuation without credible evidence of fraud/corruption. Maybe someone tries it for poops and giggles but they might get a smack on the snoot the first time and sanctioned the next. Furthermore, the RSDC isn’t locked in to using the same procedure every time. As market conditions are constantly changing, they can modify their process accordingly.
What’s interesting to me is how the RSDC now calculates the third and fourth five year periods. Each five year period’s FMV was supposed to be calculated before it started. It’s a lot easier to calculate “value” in hindsight, because you have actual data. You can bet each side will want to use that data when it benefits them the most, but that’s not how the contract was written.